Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 04:12
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Is it okay for me to wear girls’ underwear?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
How can I be okay with being ugly? What is the bright side?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Is the Chinese economy currently collapsing? If not, what could potentially cause it to collapse?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.